[GCFL-discuss] Polygamy

[Discussion of the Good, Clean Funnies List]

I believe adultery refers to a married person having relations outside of
marriage with someone other than their spouse. greenBubble's point is
interesting, that each marriage is between one man and one woman, even if
one man has a thousand marriages.

But, this does bring to mind that Yehoshua ben Yussuf, the carpenter's
son from Nazareth, proclaimed by his own immediate disciples to be the
awaited Messiah, and accepted as such by the gentiles who accepted the
Gospel (I'm walking a fine line here in how I put this), did say that if
a man divorces his wife, for any cause but adultery on her part, and
marries another, he commits adultery. So in that context, you may be
right.

It depends on whether a second marriage, without dissolving the first
marriage, is accepted as being a simultaneously valid marriage. Muslims,
the original Mormons, during at least some centuries the Jewish people,
would have accepted the later marriages as valid. King Henry VIII ran
into a good deal of trouble over that. 

The Stuart kings simply kept mistresses on the side -- Charles II had one
Catholic mistress and one Protestant mistress. The Catholic one was hated
by the people, who mobbed a coach they believed was carrying her to the
palace. They had the wrong coach. Nelle Gwinn leaned out the window to
cry "Hold, good people, hold! I am the Protestant whore!"

Siarlys

On Mon, 6 Nov 2006 13:01:01 -0800 "Discussion of the Good, Clean Funnies
List" <gcfl-discuss at gcfl.net> writes:
Interesting.

Yes Siarlys, I know I'm supposed to have something more in depth... but I
got nada...

OOooh...

How does many wives not get labeled as adultery? Wouldn't going after a
second wife constitute adultery?

Lance

On 11/6/06, Discussion of the Good, Clean Funnies List
<gcfl-discuss at gcfl.net> wrote: 

Whether a man has one wife or a thousand, each marriage is a union
between one man and one woman.


greenBubble


Subject: [GCFL-discuss] Polygamy

Here is an interesting twist on the claim that G-d ordained marriage to
be the union of one man and one woman:

I asked an Orthodox rabbi, who is planning to vote yes on a marriage 
amendment next week, how it was possible for King David, and King
Solomon, to have multiple wives, not even getting into all their
additional concubines.

He responded "Whatever gave you the idea that the Torah bans polygamy?" 
(The Torah is Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy. These
books of course contain most of "the Law" which Christians refer to as
Old Testament -- although the prophets and other writings expound on it 
a
good deal.

Well, I haven't been able to find any such thing. In the absence of such
a foundation in the Torah, I'm not sure Jesus ever came down firmly for
monogamy over polygamy either. (He said some things about divorce, but 
did not specify that a man could not have other wives at the same time).
PAUL used language about a man being "the husband of one wife." But
where
does THAT come from if it was not part of Jewish law? 

I am told that among Ashkenazi Jews in Europe, polygamy was formally
ended (it hardly existed anyway -- Jewish men were too poor to afford a
second wife) because French Christians were agitating about Jews being 
polygamous. This, however, did not apply to Sephardic Jews, who were
living in Muslim caliphates, where polygamy was also acceptable.

So maybe the Mormons were correct? I prefer monogamy, and none of this
provides any basis for issuing marriage licenses to same-sex couples,
but
the complex possibilities in any such discussion puts simple slogans on
billboards and lawn signs to shame.

Siarlys
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